21 Feb
2006
21 Feb
'06
9:56 p.m.
On Tue, 2006-02-21 at 17:23 -0800, Kjetil S. Matheussen wrote:
I mean that I would not distribute my software in a country that did not
have copyright law, because a powerful corporation in such a place could
take my GPL'ed code and put it in a proprietary product, or take my
proprietary code withoput paying me for it. Just like I would not park
my car somewhere where it could be legally stolen (or driven off in, or
borrowed, or whatever you call it).
Lee
On Tue, 21 Feb 2006, Lee Revell wrote:
Because you are taking someone's property without paying them for it.
If I create something it is my right to sell it or refuse to sell it to
anyone.
On Tue, 2006-02-21 at 16:57 -0800, Kjetil S.
Matheussen wrote:
But why do you consider it stealing?
Lee Revell:
First, because I personally do consider it stealing, and second,
On Tue, 2006-02-21 at 14:08 +0100, David Kastrup wrote:
> Who is talking about not paying?
This whole discussion was ignited when someone advocated pirating (or
stealing, or whatever) commercial software.
Why don't you want to distinct between copyright violation (which is
a gray area, different from country to country) and stealing?
copyright infringement is illegal everywhere that
matters.
Hmmmmmm. :-(
So what do you mean by matters?