On 02/23/2006 01:37 AM, fons adriaensen wrote:
On Wed, Feb 22, 2006 at 08:17:38PM +0000, Frank
Wales wrote:
No, it isn't; licences are *not* contracts,
and never have been.
I never said that a license *is* a contract. But when you buy
a license, and thereby agree to its terms, that act creates
a contract between you and the entity that grants the license.
I believe you are confusing some distinct issue here. To make my
understanding of these issues clearer to you, here is a story:
Joe buys a piece of software in a shop, takes it home and attempts to
install it. The following dialogue appears on his computer:
"This software is licensed, not sold. You may only install or
use this software if you always wear a red hat. You may not
lend, resell or give away this software. Clicking on the
'I agree' button below indicates that you have accepted
these terms. Unless you click 'I Agree', you may
not install or use the software."
Joe clicks 'I agree' and proceeds to use the software for
its intended purpose. Now answer these questions:
0) Did Joe accept the conditions presented to him?
1) Has Joe entered into a contract of licensing with the
software vendor?
2) Is Joe required to wear a red hat while using
the software?
3) If Joe does not wear a red hat, is he breaking the law
by using the software?
4) Once he no longer wishes to use it, can Joe sell his
copy of the software to his sister Jo?
I believe the answers to these questions, at least in the
USA and the EU, would be:
0) Maybe, maybe not.
1) No
2) No
3) No
4) Yes
I base these answers on both legal advice on matters relating
to the acquisition, development and supply of software over
many years, and on my understanding of things like 17 USC 117
and the EU Copyright Directive 91/250/EEC.
As I said before, I am not a lawyer, and this is not legal advice,
but here is my attempt at explaining the above answers.
If I purchase a piece of software, say in a computer shop,
then take it home and get presented with an end-user licence
agreement during installation of that software, the terms
of that licence agreement have no effect on the pre-existing
contract of sale. Vendors simply do not have the right to
arbitrarily modify contracts of sale after the fact.
Moreover, from my perspective, I've purchased a *copy* of
the software, not entered into some kind of sub-licensing
or rental agreement with the vendor. This is just the same
kind of sale that happens if I buy a book or a DVD. Since
everyone involved, up to the point of purchase, acted like
it was a sale, it is, no matter what a piece of paper
inside the box claims about it not being a sale.
The contract of sale happens when the vendor, or their representative,
takes my money and gives me the copy of the software, not at some
random later time when the vendor deigns to present me with a bunch
of conditions.
I am unaware of any other forms of contract between a purchaser
of software and a vendor that might suddenly pop into existence
when a licence is presented to a user, nor does the
earlier act of purchasing connote assent to the subsequent
alteration of the contract of sale by such a licence.
All the relevant legal advice I've had over the years indicates
that the purchaser can take or leave the terms of the licence, and
use the software they've already paid for anyway.
For any licence to have an impact on the contract of sale,
the purchaser must have been fully cognizant of its terms
before payment. That software vendors generally don't make this
possible tells you something about how confident they are in the
reasonableness and enforceability of those terms.
Even if licences were to be presented to purchasers before
the sale, presenting them on a take-it-or-leave-it basis wouldn't help
the vendors' position; they would probably be considered as so-called
"contracts of adhesion", and as such would be much harder for the
vendors to enforce anyway, even with the buyer's signature.
In general (and certainly in the EU and the USA, I believe),
consumers have the right to install, use, back-up, study and reverse
engineer for the purposes of interoperability any software that they
legally acquire a copy of, unless they specifically, and *before*
agreeing to its purchase, negotiate away those rights. Clicking 'I agree'
constitutes neither legal assent, nor a negotiation of any kind.
All of the above was sounding really good up to the last paragraph.
That was sounding good too until you hit "reverse engineer for the
purposes of interoperability". Even then it would be OK if you include
the caveat that the software (or other "intellectual property") must not
be protected by any form of encryption to protect intellectual property.
If it is, then you are in violation of the Digital Millennium Copyright
Act in the US if you reverse engineer or otherwise try to break the
protection. You're probably OK in the EU but I'm not positive.
Other than that one little point, I give you an A+ on this term
paper ;-)
--
Jan 'Evil Twin' Depner
The Fuzzy Dice
"As we enjoy great advantages from the invention of others, we should be
glad of an opportunity to serve others by any invention of ours, and
this we should do freely and generously."
Benjamin Franklin, on declining patents offered by the governor of
Pennsylvania for his "Pennsylvania Fireplace", c. 1744